The usual
translation of 1 Corinthians 4:4 strikes me as problematic, specifically the
first phrase in the Greek (in bold print, UBS 3rd ed.):
οὐδὲν γὰρ ἐμαυτῷ σύνοιδα, ἀλλ' οὐκ ἐν τούτῳ δεδικαίωμαι, ὁ δὲ ἀνακρίνων με κύριός ἐστιν.
The NLT (New Living Translation) translates this phrase as "my conscience is clear." Another popular translation (this from the
English Standard Version) is, "For I am not aware of anything against
myself," (emphasis added.) The term
ἐμαυτῷ, I believe, should not be translated here as a dative of disadvantage,
but rather as a dative of reference. Thus,
the phrase should read something along the lines of "I am not aware of
anything with reference to myself" or "I am not aware or conscious of
myself."
My
reasoning is this. The verb σύνοιδα is very broad and means "to be conscious of
something." See Zerwick, A Grammatical
Analysis of the Greek New Testament, p. 503.
See also Rogers, The New Linguistic and Exegetical Key to the Greek New
Testament, p. 354, "Definite perfect with a present meaning, here, to know about
oneself, what is unknown to others; 'my conscience is clear'."
This unusual verb (it only appears twice in the New Testament, see Trenchard, Complete Vocabulary Guide to the Greek New Testament, p. 77) thus suggests that Paul's message here is in no way conventional and that the reader
needs to pay attention.
The key
then is the translation of the dative reflexive pronoun ἐμαυτῷ. Should it be taken as a dative of
disadvantage, that is, "against myself" (as Dr. Wallace does in his grammar, Greek Grammar Beyond The Basics (GGBB), p. 144, 1996 ed.), or should it be viewed as a dative of reference, that is,
"with respect to or regarding myself?" Wallace, in analyzing Phil 1:28, reasons that "where both are true (dative of disadvantage and dative of
reference are both possible), treat the term as belonging to the more particular
category, in this case disadvantage," and goes on to cite 1 Cor.
4:4 as an example of this construction. pp. 143-144. This is the translation adopted in the English Standard Version.
My problem
with this construction here is two-fold.
The verb σύνοιδα is very broad and seems out of place if it is limited
to only one aspect of Paul's behavior or character, namely, anything that he has done
wrong in the past. If Paul wanted to say
that he wasn't aware of anything against himself, why not simply use the far more common verb for knowing, οιδα (used 318 times in the NT, see Trenchard, p. 77) without the prefix? Second, Paul is
obviously aware of things against himself.
See 1 Cor. 15:9, where later on in this very letter Paul writes (ESV), "For I am the least of the apostles, unworthy to be called an apostle, because I persecuted the church of God." (Emphasis added).
Did Paul forget his earlier conduct here, or
is he simply being "cleverly metaphysical?"
I don't
believe either is true. I think Paul is
making a far broader and deeper statement.
He is saying that consistent with his new life in the Spirit in which he
lives to God and not to himself, he is no longer conscious of his old self. Yet Paul goes on to assert that even though
he is no longer aware or conscious of his life in the flesh, this does not justify
him before God, because only Christ can do that for him,
ἀλλ' οὐκ ἐν τούτῳ δεδικαίωμαι, ὁ δὲ ἀνακρίνων με κύριός ἐστιν. ("My conscience is clear, but that doesn’t prove I’m right. It is the Lord himself who will examine me and decide." NLT)
See also Galatians 2: 20 (NLT), "My old self has been crucified with Christ. It is no longer I who live, but Christ lives in me. So I live in this earthly body by trusting in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me."
To translate the phrase in 1 Cor. 4:4, οὐδὲν γὰρ ἐμαυτῷ σύνοιδα, as "I am not aware of anything against myself" (cf. GGBB, pp. 143-144, 1996 ed.) contradicts Paul's conception of salvation through grace and not works. Can anyone claim justification based on his or her conduct? As Christ said in John 6:63 (NLT) "The Spirit alone gives eternal life. Human effort accomplishes nothing." Why then would Paul resort to a legalistic formulation here, whether he is aware of anything against himself or not?
The other common translation of the phrase―"my conscience is clear" (NLT)―is fine as far as it goes, but it doesn't go far enough. What is a clear conscience exactly? Is it morally, ethically or legally based? Under Paul's view of salvation, it can't be any of these. A clear conscience is part and parcel of a new creation born of the Spirit. See 2 Cor. 5:16-17 (NLT), "So we have stopped evaluating others from a human point of view.... This means that anyone who belongs to Christ has become a new person. The old life is gone; a new life has begun!"
Paul is saying in 1 Cor. 4:4 that he is not conscious of himself, that is, his life in the flesh, his old self, the self that was crucified with Christ on the Cross, and all of the conduct, both good and bad, that went with it. See Romans 6:8 (ESV), "Now if we died with Christ, we believe that we will also live with him." Thus, the dative of disadvantage is not an option here as it is in Phil. 1:28, (see Wallace, GGBB, p. 143, 1996 ed.), and also in James 5:3 and probably Mark 13:9. We need not choose between the two categories. The only permissible construction then of ἐμαυτῷ in 1 Cor. 4:4 is the dative of reference.
For Paul's view of the Gentile conscience, see Romans 2:15-16 (NLT, followed by the Greek Text, UBS 3rd ed.):
"They demonstrate that God’s law is written in their hearts, for their own conscience and thoughts either accuse them or tell them they are doing right. This will take place on the day when God judges people’s secrets through Jesus Christ, as my gospel declares."
οἵτινες ἐνδείκνυνται τὸ ἔργον τοῦ νόμου γραπτὸν ἐν ταῖς καρδίαις αὐτῶν, συμμαρτυρούσης αὐτῶν τῆς συνειδήσεως καὶ μεταξὺ ἀλλήλων τῶν λογισμῶν κατηγορούντων ἢ καὶ ἀπολογουμένων,
ἐν ἡμέρᾳ ὅτε κρίνει ὁ θεὸς τὰ κρυπτὰ τῶν ἀνθρώπων κατὰ τὸ εὐαγγέλιόν μου διὰ Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ.
Here, we see the back and forth of the legalistic conscience embedded in the flesh as it both accuses and defends. This is what Christ frees us from. If Paul were saying in 1 Cor. 4:4 that he is no longer aware of "anything against him," that is, his bad conduct, he would be falling back into the curse of the Law. See Galatians 3:13 (NLT), "But Christ has rescued us from the curse pronounced by the law. When he was hung on the cross, he took upon himself the curse for our wrongdoing."
For translations that adopt the dative of reference in 1 Cor. 4:4 (there are not many of them, and they are hardly what you might call best-selling versions and tend to be older translations), see Douay-Rheims Bible, "For I am not conscious to myself of anything;" Young's Literal Translation, "[F]or of nothing to myself have I been conscious;" Darby Bible Translation, "For I am conscious of nothing in myself;" Geneva Bible of 1587, For I know nothing by my selfe;" Tyndale Bible of 1526, "I know nought by my selfe;" Literal Standard Version, "[F]or I have been conscious of nothing for myself;" Worrell New Testament, "For I am conscious to myself of nothing;" Worsley New Testament, "[F]or I am conscious to myself of nothing;" the Coverdale Bible of 1535, "I knowe noughte by my selfe;" and The KJB, "For I know nothing by myself."
Final Notes: συνείδησις occurs 31 times in the NT, mostly in Paul. See Bromiley, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, p. 1123. The term is never used in relation to a good or bad conscience in a moralistic sense. "The connection with faith shows that the good conscience has to do with the new creation which embraces all life, not just with a blameless conscience in a moralistic sense." Bromiley, pp. 1123-1124. The moralistic sense of conscience in Christian thought probably sprang from the early writings of the Apostolic Fathers. See Holmes, The Apostolic Fathers, 3rd edition, 1 Clement 1.3 (p. 46), Barnabas 19.12 (p. 438), and Herman Mandates 3.4 (p. 508).
When Paul used the verb σύνοιδα in 1 Cor. 4:4, he was getting at something far deeper than knowledge in the mere sense of being acquainted with or knowing. He was pointing toward the full realization of our salvation through Christ. See 1 Cor., 15:53-57 (NLT):
"For our dying bodies must be transformed into bodies that will never die; our mortal bodies must be transformed into immortal bodies. Then, when our dying bodies have been transformed into bodies that will never die, this Scripture will be fulfilled: 'Death is swallowed up in victory. O death, where is your victory? O death, where is your sting?' For sin is the sting that results in death, and the law gives sin its power. But thank God! He gives us victory over sin and death through our Lord Jesus Christ."
To sum
up, the two popular translations of 1 Cor. 4:4 ("I am not aware of
anything against myself" or "my conscience is clear") run
aground on two points. First, if σύνοιδα
simply means to know or to be acquainted with, so that Paul is only saying that
he isn't aware of anything against himself, that is contradicted just a few chapters later in the very same epistle where he admits that he is the least of the
Apostles because he persecuted the church.
Squaring those two statements requires too much theological effort, in
my view. Second, the positing of a clear
conscience as morally based is doctrinally incorrect because it goes against
the whole notion of a clean heart and a good conscience as being part and
parcel of a new creation through Christ.
As with much of Paul's writings, he is pointing here in 1 Cor. 4:4 to
the full realization of his salvation as Christ-based and nothing else. See, e.g., 1 Cor., 15:53-57 and Phil. 3:12.
The
bottom line is this. What does it mean to
have a "clear conscience"? Does
it mean that one doesn’t feel guilty about anything one has done in the
past? That seems a rather legalistic,
worldly and narrow view. Or, does a
clear conscience mean that one is no longer conscious of oneself because one
lives to Christ and no longer to the flesh?
I think the latter is the better view and in accord with Pauline theology,
as the theologians might say. Here, the old
KJV gets closer to the truer meaning than the newer translations, "For I
know nothing by myself; yet am I not hereby justified: but he that judgeth me
is the Lord."
If you have any comments, objections or any other thoughts on this question, please leave a comment.